Hi, I'm just having confusion about this. I do have a simple topology as shown below.
Topology:
Site A ----| SW1-(PE1)----L2vpn----(2PE2) SW2|----- Site B
With normal l2vpn pseudowire what it does it matches the payload forward to xconnect then impose a label in it toward to xconnect peer.
- Now does by default pseudowire allow l2protocol like cdp stp vtp lldp which inside the payload sent by site A/B traverse to xconnect circuit?
- while there's a scenario that you need to tunnel these protocol in tunnel ports to properly run theres l2protocol?
- Does it mean that I cannot run there protocol properly without using some sort of tunneling?
- In the case that Im using a regular matching on both PEs should I configure a tunnel and does it have any interuption/down time on its current service?
PROVIDER:
SW1(C4500)
int g1/1
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
switchport mode trunk
PE(ASR)
interface TenGigE1/1.100 l2transport
description MPLSCUSTL2;STATIC;65003;AMS02;100Mb;SR146744;Metro Optical;;Americas;MET023;Man;Prov;B;
encapsulation dot1q 100
rewrite ingress tag pop 1 symmetric
xconnect group test
p2p test-p2p
interface TenGigE0/1.100
neighbor ipv4 pe2x.x.x.x pw-id 100
SW2(Cisco ASR 920)
service instance 100 ethernet
encapsulation untagged
bridge-domain 100
PE2 has similar configuration like P1 interms of interface and l2vpn.
Thanks
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