Questions about how IPv6 is routed by ISPs

1. With IPv6, if one were to have a globally unique address (or /56 or /64 subnet per customer at least) wouldn’t the global routing table be absolutely enormous?

I suppose ISP1 will have like a /16 assigned to them and ISP2 will just have one routing entry/ a list of best next hops for all networks in that range and let ISP1 handle it? Just speculation as my knowledge is limited in this space.

1. And if a home IPv6 router is assigning addresses to the device level, presumably this will allow an ISP to know exactly what device is using the internet, rather than a household (especially with SLAAC and Mac addresses literally being part of the IPv6 address)? Or do the devices use their link-local to the router and then the sender address in the packet is the global IPv6 of the router, akin to NAT/PAT?

In the above case, what’s the point of a device having a global address if it’s going to behave the same as IPv4? Hosting services should be easier at least.

1. What routing protocol do ISPs use for IPv6 or are they using IPv4 tunnelling methods?

I’m CCNA level but interested in learning more if anyone has any reading they can suggest. Hopefully these aren’t stupid questions.