I have a network design that relies on the fact that backbones must be contiguous by placing a non-backbone between 2 backbones.
Area 0 <--> Area 1 <--> Area 0
This way I can inject routes from Area 1 into both Area 0's and not have any route leakage between the two backbones. Each Area 0 is intended to operate as an entirely seperate autonomous system.
However, a colleague is of the impression that this is RFC breaking in that there should be one, and only one, backbone area. He thinks this should be reimplemented by turning 'Area 1' into an ASBR
Now I'm not an expert in OSPF, so he may well be right, but I'm unable to find any supporting evidence of this other than the fact that a backbone must be contiguous. In face I have found many examples of OSPF being used in this way, which leads me to believe he might be wrong.
Any OSPF gurus able to shed some light on this situation would be greatly appreciated.
No comments:
Post a Comment