Wednesday, November 15, 2017

Am I correct about ICMP Type 5 Code 1 Redirect for Host?

Doing some CCIE notes, and not finding anything definite. The only scenario I can think of when Code 1 (yes code 1 not code 0) is sent is when a sender has a misconfigured (smaller) subnet mask, and sends a packet to the router/default gateway, and the router has the proper mask and notices that the source is in the same network, and thus sends a host redirect. Is that correct?



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