Doing some CCIE notes, and not finding anything definite. The only scenario I can think of when Code 1 (yes code 1 not code 0) is sent is when a sender has a misconfigured (smaller) subnet mask, and sends a packet to the router/default gateway, and the router has the proper mask and notices that the source is in the same network, and thus sends a host redirect. Is that correct?
No comments:
Post a Comment